Question # 20
Dear Alan,
You wrote: Please explain “first fruits” and the relationship to tithing.
The simple answer followers below. However, the Torah accounts for (3) tithes that not only go to the Levites, but to orphans, widows and those in need. A careful study of annual tithing from the Scripture amounts to about 28% of an individual’s income. There is even a penalty if one fails to make tithes on a timely basis, and that is you must add another 1/5. For example, if you fail to tithe 10% at the proper time you must add a fifth, which brings the total to 30%. Unlike churches today the tithes went to the priests and they were obligated to pay the costs associated with running and the upkeep of the religious institutions. Churches today operate contrary to the biblical model.
Now more directly, “firstfruits” may be seen as a metaphor for contemporary believers, but in ancient times “firstfruits” was the best examples of a crop harvested first, and dedicated to G-d. In accordance with Mosaic law, individual Israelites brought to the house of the L-rd "the first (that is, "the best") of the firstfruits of thy land" (Ex. 23:19; 34:26), including grain, wine, and oil, which were used--except for the grain (Lev. 2:14-16)--for the support of the priests (Num. 18:12; Deut. 18:4). According to Deuteronomy 26:1-11, the offering was brought in a basket to the sanctuary for presentation. The Book of Proverbs promises prosperity to those who honor the L-rd with the firstfruits (Prov. 3:9).
The application to be made by us is that we are to dedicate and give unto the L-rd the best we have, not the leftovers. As to tithing the first 10% of our gross work income or income from any source is to be given. We are not to give what is left after we pay our debts. Therefore, the “firstfuits” – is our first and best.
This runs contrary to the general thinking of professed believers today, but G-d does not change and His Torah (instructions) holds just as true for us now as it did for the ancient Israelites.
I hope this helps. If you had a particular Scripture in mind pleas reply for there is an abundance of information in the Bible about tithing and firstfuits.
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis
Question #21
Dear Keith,
You wrote: “who was Jesus’ stepfather Joseph’s father? Matthew 1:16 says it was a man named Jacob; Luke 4:23 says it was Heli. I would be interested in your answer.
This apparent disharmony has been the source of debate for scholars for hundreds of years and no completely satisfactory conclusion that does not present difficulties of its own has ever been agreed upon.
My own personal conclusion is best illustrated by an earlier reference in Matthew 1:9 where Matthew lists Uzziah as the father of Jotham while in 2 Kings 15: 1-7 and 1 chronicles 3:12 Jotham’s father is called Azariah. Yet, in 2 Kings 15: 32, 34 Jotham’s father is called Uzziah instead of Azariah. The names are different but refer to the same king. He bore both names. Jews when life’s focus changes or some momentous event occurs effect a name change to commemorate this new direction. Azariah means, “YHVH has helped” and Uzziah means, “YHVH is my strength.” My Hebrew name initially given to me by my father was L’chaim, “to life” and later as my personality developed it became Milchamah, meaning “dressed for battle” because I was so confrontational in theological disputes. My last name ben David is of course “son of David.” There are other examples found through out scripture.
To the example, you cited. Matthew was writing to a Jewish audience and Luke most likely to a predominantly Gentile one. Different perspectives based on cultural differences. Matthew works forward through time and Luke works backwards. The formats followed by each writer contrasts greatly. Matthew stresses the Davidic line for his Jewish audience while Luke apparently records the genealogical line of Mary, placing the emphasis on G-d as Yahshua’s Father. . [By the way, both Joseph and Mary were from the Davidic and priestly lines] Yahshua had to be born of a virgin because of G-d’s curse of Jeochonia (Coniah) [another example of two names same person] whose descendants would never sit on the throne of Israel, thus eliminating Yahshua, if His lineage were biologically from Joseph. There in, we see the necessity of a virgin birth aside from the doctrine of original sin passed through the father, the male (not the female) as necessary for Yahshua to assume the kingship of Israel because He could never rule if He were descended from the line of Joseph whose ancestors included Jeochonia, which Mary’s did not. If you take note, you will find that HELI was actually Joseph’s father-in law. In Judaism many references are made that are indistinguishable as to a biological father, stepfather or even grandfather. My own grandson who is an Israeli calls me Abba (father) the same as he calls his biological father Abba. No distinction is made linguistically.
One last thought. Matthews’s genealogy is a dynastic list and Luke’s is an actual descendant list. Jewish genealogies were constructed primarily to demonstrate the family’s Jewish origins. Some of the differences noted between Matthew and Luke might be the result of levirate marriages whereas if a man died leaving no male heir to perpetuate his name his surviving brother or another male relative was obligated to marry the deceased’s wife and provide an heir to his brother name (Deuteronomy 25:5-10). This could explain some of the divergences.
Confusing isn’t it? You almost have to be born a Jew to be comfortable with it. It is so important to know the Jewish roots of the Scriptures in order to understand them. Where I see harmony, others might see contradictions.
Keep up the good work!
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchamah b. David)
Question #22
Dear Keith,
You wrote: “who was Jesus’ stepfather Joseph’s father? Matthew 1:16 says it was a man named Jacob; Luke 4:23 says it was Heli. I would be interested in your answer.
This apparent disharmony has been the source of debate for scholars for hundreds of years and no completely satisfactory conclusion that does not present difficulties of its own has ever been agreed upon.
My own personal conclusion is best illustrated by an earlier reference in Matthew 1:9 where Matthew lists Uzziah as the father of Jotham while in 2 Kings 15: 1-7 and 1 chronicles 3:12 Jotham’s father is called Azariah. Yet, in 2 Kings 15: 32, 34 Jotham’s father is called Uzziah instead of Azariah. The names are different but refer to the same king. He bore both names. Jews when life’s focus changes or some momentous event occurs effect a name change to commemorate this new direction. Azariah means, “YHVH has helped” and Uzziah means, “YHVH is my strength.” My Hebrew name initially given to me by my father was L’chaim, “to life” and later as my personality developed it became Milchamah, meaning “dressed for battle” because I was so confrontational in theological disputes. My last name ben David is of course “son of David.” There are other examples found through out scripture.
To the example, you cited. Matthew was writing to a Jewish audience and Luke most likely to a predominantly Gentile one. Different perspectives based on cultural differences. Matthew works forward through time and Luke works backwards. The formats followed by each writer contrasts greatly. Matthew stresses the Davidic line for his Jewish audience while Luke apparently records the genealogical line of Mary, placing the emphasis on G-d as Yahshua’s Father. . [By the way, both Joseph and Mary were from the Davidic and priestly lines] Yahshua had to be born of a virgin because of G-d’s curse of Jeochonia (Coniah) [another example of two names same person] whose descendants would never sit on the throne of Israel, thus eliminating Yahshua, if His lineage were biologically from Joseph. There in, we see the necessity of a virgin birth aside from the doctrine of original sin passed through the father, the male (not the female) as necessary for Yahshua to assume the kingship of Israel because He could never rule if He were descended from the line of Joseph whose ancestors included Jeochonia, which Mary’s did not. If you take note, you will find that HELI was actually Joseph’s father-in law. In Judaism many references are made that are indistinguishable as to a biological father, stepfather or even grandfather. My own grandson who is an Israeli calls me Abba (father) the same as he calls his biological father Abba. No distinction is made linguistically.
One last thought. Matthews’s genealogy is a dynastic list and Luke’s is an actual descendant list. Jewish genealogies were constructed primarily to demonstrate the family’s Jewish origins. Some of the differences noted between Matthew and Luke might be the result of levirate marriages whereas if a man died leaving no male heir to perpetuate his name his surviving brother or another male relative was obligated to marry the deceased’s wife and provide an heir to his brother name (Deuteronomy 25:5-10). This could explain some of the divergences.
Confusing isn’t it? You almost have to be born a Jew to be comfortable with it. It is so important to know the Jewish roots of the Scriptures in order to understand them. Where I see harmony, others might see contradictions.
Keep up the good work!
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchamah b. David)
Question #23
Rabbi,
I am glad that you are willing to take the time to visit with me. I have a few starter questions that will get me into some objections I have heard Jewish people make about Yeshua.
1. Have you heard the objection that Yeshua couldn't be the Messiah because the Seventy weeks prophecy doesn't refer to him and is twisted by Christians to equal the time of Yeshua? Can you explain the 70 weeks of Daniel and why there is one week left? Does that 1 week mean the 7 year tribulation?
Enough for now, Look forward to hearing from you.
Because of G-d,
Kenneth
Rabbi’s Answer:
Yes, the seventh week refers to the 7 year tribulation. G-d often breaks up
prophecies in periods of time fulfilling part of the prophecy at one time and
then the remainder at a later time. This is well recognized and undisputed by
Biblical scholars.
G-d in His wisdom has arranged history to account for the Advent of Yahshua and
to give a period of time (2000 Years) for the Gospel of the Kingdom to be
preached to ALL mankind. It is reminiscent of G-d's Seven Festivals. (See Web
Site for details) The festivals are types of shadows and a micro account of
Spiritual History. Yahshua has fulfilled 4 and 3 are left to be fulfilled. This
does not mean we are not to celebrate them still.
A Synopsis:
1) Passover-He was the Passover Lamb; 2) Feast of Unleavened Bread-Leavened was
a type of sin and He was without sin; 3) First Fruits-Yahshua was first risen;
and 4) Shavuot or Pentecost - the Day the Law (Torah) was given on Mt. Sinai
and the day the Ruach HaKodesh (Holy Spirit) was given on Pentecost that enables
us to live the Torah.
In the case of the Festivals there is a pronounced period of time where no
festivals are celebrated as there is a period of time between the 69 weeks and
the final 7 weeks. This correlates to the period of 2000 years since Yahshua's
advent. The next festival to be fulfilled on G-d's time table is the "rapture"
or "catching away" of the eccklesia "called out ones," not the church. (If you
don't believe in the Rapture it is taught in the Old Testament) This occurs on
the Feast of Trumpets. Then the Judgment on Yom Kippur, and Succoth (Feast of
Tabernacles), the last festival that will also be celebrated in the Millenium
Temple when G-d's providence takes care of us in His Kingdom. The Exodus being a
shadow or type of the final Succoth where the Hebrews were taken care of in the
Wilderness wanderings. So we see that G-d has given mankind a period time and
accounted for it in His festivals and in Daniel's prophecy allowing for the
Spirit of G-d to work through Yahshua for the benefit of mankind.
It should be noted that traditional Judaism does not consider Daniel a prophet
and this is an error, but may be part of the "blindness of the Jews" spoken of
in Scripture so that the time of the Gentiles may be fulfilled and brought into
the Kingdom.
I have recently begun writing a book titled "A Messianic Rabbi's Thoughts," and
the opening chapter relates to your question above in that it addresses the
"objection to Yahshua being the Messiah." by Jewish people. Read it carefully.
Jews are perceived to be the most liberal and open-minded of people, yet I have found few practicing Jews who would approach the subject of the Christian Messiah "Jesus" with an open mind. Most regard the subject not with directness, but with reticence.
Even stripping "Jesus" of His Christian trappings and identifying Him as His true self, an observant Jew of the highest rank does nothing to dispel a traditional Jew's aversion to His personage. If we as Jews could get past the mindset informed by eons of Christian persecution, past a Jew's aversion to that which he identifies with anti-Semitism we might discover in "Jesus" our own Messiah. I do not mean the Gentile version "Jesus," but a real, red blooded, confrontational and vibrant Jewish Messiah named Yahshua.
If a Jew could come so far as to approach "Jesus" with the same democratic ideals that he employs in all of his social and political endeavors he might not so readily dismiss the possibility that "Jesus," preferably Yahshua, is the Jewish Messiah. Why? Well, let me tell you!
In the Hebrew Scriptures in that portion identified by traditional Judaism as "writings" is a book called Daniel and in Daniel 9:24-27 we find the following.
Daniel 9:24
Seventy weeks are determined upon thy people and upon thy holy city, to finish the transgression, and to make an end of sins, and to make reconciliation for iniquity, and to bring in everlasting righteousness, and to seal up the vision and prophecy, and to anoint the most Holy.
Daniel 9:25
Know therefore and understand, that from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks, and threescore and two weeks: the street shall be built again, and the wall, even in troublous times.
Daniel 9:26 And after threescore and two weeks shall Messiah be cut off, but not for himself: and the people of the prince that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
Daniel 9:27
And he shall confirm the covenant with many for one week: and in the midst of the week he shall cause the sacrifice and the oblation to cease, and for the overspreading of abominations he shall make it desolate, even until the consummation, and that determined shall be poured upon the desolate. (KJV)
First, I want you to take particular note of verse twenty-five (25), the underlined portion. It says: that "from the going forth of the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem unto the Messiah the Prince shall be seven weeks (sevens), and threescore and two weeks (sevens). Daniel is speaking here of the Jewish Messiah who will be manifested on this earth 483 biblical years after the commandment to rebuild Jerusalem is issued. Now it is important to remember that a biblical or prophetic year consists of 360 days, the yearly cycle of the Jewish calendar by its association with the lunar cycle and not the solar cycle.
As discerning and open-minded Bible believers, what is left for us to do? We must determine when all the elements were in place to produce the “commandment going forth,” and then merely count biblical years to the date indicated. In 606 BC, Nebuchadnezzar, King of Babylon, conquered Jerusalem and took back with him to Babylon a group of royal captives, Daniel being one of them. Daniel was YHVH connected, and he eventually became the primary vicar of the Babylonian Empire. Contemporary with Daniel was the Prophet Jeremiah. Daniel learned from Jeremiah by reading Jeremiah's prediction in 538 BC that Judah would serve the King of Babylon for seventy years.
Jeremiah 25:11
And this whole land shall be desolation, an astonishment; and these nations shall serve the king of Babylon seventy years.
We now we have a brief background to the prophecy. Nebuchadnezzar took Judah into captivity and Daniel learned that it was to last 70 years. We have the secular dates from history so we can make our calculations.
In 1895, Sir Robert Anderson a gifted scholar and the head of Scotland Yard wrote a review of this prophecy. He demonstrated that beginning from Daniel's prophecy in chapter 9:24-27 that it was exactly 483 years biblical years to the first advent of the Messiah. How does he come to that conclusion?
First, he states that the commencement point of the vision is the commandment to rebuild "the walls of Jerusalem." (Daniel 9:25). Artaxerxes Longimanus the Persian King issued this decree in the month of Nissan in the twentieth year of his reign (see Nehemiah 2:1). The Talmud states that the first day of the month of Nissan is the New Year for the computation of the reign of kings and for festivals. This is Biblical reckoning not as the contemporary Jewish calendar that reckons the New Year from Rosh Hoshanna, the Biblical Feast of Trumpets, something like a fiscal year for businesses. Of course to be accurate we must employ biblical computations only. The royal Observatory, Greenwich, United Kingdom calculated backwards that the biblical date for the decree was in our secular calendar March 14, 445 BCE. Using this date for clarity the passage that states "from the commandment to restore and to build Jerusalem" given on March 14, 445 BCE and calculating a period of seven weeks (years), 7 x 7=49 years, and then sixty-two weeks (years) (62 x 7=434 years for a total of 69 weeks of years (69 x 7=483 Biblical (360 day years), equals 173,880 days (483 x 360 = 173,880). Daniel tells us that at the end of the sixty-nine weeks or 483 years or 173,880 days the "Messiah will be cut off." On the tenth day of Nissan, April 6th, 32 CE in fulfillment of this prophecy, Yahshua entered Jerusalem and presented Himself as the Messiah.
We arrive at this date via a sixth century monk identified as Dionysius Exiguus who developed our current system of numbering years. He calculated the birth of Yahshua as having occurred in the Roman year 754. He computed the New Year, January 1 of the year following Yahshua's birth as reported in the book of Luke as the year AD 1 (CE) for his new calendar Anno Domini, "Year of God-Yahshua." His calculations were based on the historical records available to him in Rome along with Luke's statements recorded in His book (3:1-2). In AD 315 the Christian historian Eusebius consulted the Roman Government records (census of Cyrenius and Caesar Augustus) to prove that Yahshua was born in Bethlehem when Joseph and Mary were there to be enrolled in the census. Justin Martyr also records that the census records were available in his Apology, chapter 1, v. 34. It may be inferred then that Dionysius also had these records available to him enabling him to prepare an accurate calendar ascertaining that Yahshua was born in the fall of the year 1 BCE. Since there is only one year between 1 BCE and 1 CE or 1 BC and 1AD, some confusion has resulted about this because the governor of Syria, Cyrenius who administered the tax in Luke 2:1-3 was only known to have ruled in that position from 7 BC to 4 BC, but recent archeological evidence has proved that he was twice governor of Syria and that he also ruled from 4 BC to 1 BC.
Sir Robert Anderson in his book The Coming Prince, page 92 reports that Merivale in his Roman history on page 457 of Vol. iv quotes "A remarkable light has been thrown upon the point by the demonstration, as it seems to be of Agustus Zumpt in his second volume of Commentationes Epigraphicae, that Quirinus (the Cyrenius of Luke was first governor of Syria from the close of BC 4 to 753 BC.
If this is true then there is no contradiction with the time of Cyrenius's first Syrian governorship (4BC to 1BC) and the census of Luke 2:1-2 occurring during 1 BC as stated by earlier Believer's writings. Another reason we have to adjust Yahshua's birth to 4 BC is because Flavius Josephus recorded that Herod died before Passover in the same year that there was a partial lunar eclipse in Jerusalem on March 13, 4 BC. Scholars using this information proved Herod died and Yahshua was born in 4 BC. Yet, other astronomical evidence has revealed that Herod could have died as late as 1 BC or 1 AD allowing Yahshua's birth to have occurred as late as 1 BC. We now know from this evidence that a full lunar eclipse took place on January 9, 1 BC, which may well be the one referred to by Josephus in his Antiquities of the Jews [book xvii, chapter 6]. There are other astronomical records that record eclipses of the moon from Jerusalem during 5 BC to AD 4. Because of this Yahshua could have been born as early as 4BC or as late as 1BC.
In any event, the traditional date of December 25 is as error. This date was set by the Roman Emperor Constantine. The probable reasons for establishing this date is to replace an existing pagan festival to the sun, known as Saturnalia. It is also noteworthy to know that Constantine was a sun worshipper before declaring his allegiance to Christianity. In Luke 2:8 the scripture reads: "shepards abiding in the field keeping watch over the flock by night," indicates that it would not have been in late December because shepard's would have placed their flocks in a protective shelter during the cold season. A more convincing reason is that Scripture in John 1:14 records that "And the Word was made flesh, and tabernacled among us." The feast of Tabernacles occurs on the fifteenth day of Tishri (September-October) and since John would have known Yahshua's birth date he most probably is hinting at the Feast of Tabernacles as Yahshua's birthday. Numerous key events in the history of Israel have occurred on the Festival dates. The last and most convincing is found in Luke 1:5 where we are informed that Zechariah the father of John was a priest of the course of Abijah.
In 1 Chronicles 24 we learn that the Priests were divided into 24 courses. Each course served for two weeks a year and all the priests served during the three required pilgrimage festivals (Deu.16: 16). The course of Abijah was the eighth course (1 Chronicles 24:10 which served the tenth week during the former rain (first half of the year). Zechariah had his vision while serving in the course of Abijah in the tenth week of his first course. Each course was one week and 24 courses times 2 weeks equals 48 plus the three festivals comes to 51 weeks for a total of 257 days in a lunar year of 360 days. As we continue we will see that Zechariah was serving his first course as Zechariah's vision took place during the 10th week. Biblically the religious years begins on the first of Nissan/Abib. Taking into consideration the purity laws and allowing that Elizabeth's womb opened at the announcement and allowing for this process to be completed in a week and then allowing two additional weeks due to the purity laws before John could be conceived (Lev. 12:5; 15:19,25) we arrive at conception in the 13th week of the year. He was born about 40 weeks later during the 53rd week of the year, which brings us to Passover. Therefore, John was born at Passover in the spirit and power of Elijah at the very time according to tradition Elijah was supposed to appear.
Yahshua was conceived about 6 months (24 weeks) after John's conception. This means that Yahshua was conceived around the 37th week around Chanukah. Yahshua was then conceived during the Festival of Lights as the Light of the World. Yahshua was born 40 weeks later, chronologically week 77 but in week 25 of the following year, which brings us to the fall feasts. Sukkot falling somewhere between August and September yearly. All the festivals have something prophetically to teach us, and part of the shadows found within Sukkot are that Yahshua was born in a stable. The Hebrew word for "stable" is sukkah (Gen. 33:17) so it is likely that Yahshua was born in a Sukkah/booth because Jews were require to come to Jerusalem on this festival, and that would also help account for Bethlehem being booked solid. Bethlehem is just a few miles from Jerusalem. If Yahshua were born on the first day of Sukkot he would have been circumcised on the eight which is Simchat Torah (rejoicing in Torah) and who is Yahshua but the Manifested Living Torah of YHVH. His Bris (circumcision) on this day would have marked His entering into the Covenant. The angel's announcement to the Shepard's recalls the ancient Sukkoth liturgy "…behold, we have come to declare to you glad tiding of great joy." (Luke 2:10-11). Sukkot is symbolic of G-d’s providence and what greater providence for us than the Messiah who should take away our sins.
Luke records that the beginning of Yahshua’s ministry began with His baptism (Luke 3:21-22) and that He was about thirty years of age. Luke also reports, “…that it was the fifteenth year of the reign of Tiberius Caesar, Pontius Pilate being governor of Judea, and Herod being the Tetrarch of Galilee, and his brother Phillip tetrarch of Ituraea and of Abilene, Annas and Caiaphas being the high priests, the word of G-d came unto the son of Zacharias in the wilderness” (Luke 3:1-2).
It is well established that the Roman emperor Tiberius Caesar ascended his throne on the 19th day of August A.D. 14. Luke’s reference to the fifteenth year of Tiberius Caesar’s reign would bring us to about the nineteeth day of August AD 28 and historical records confirm that all those named in Luke ruled in the year 28AD. We can then surmise that it is nearly a certainty that Yahshua’s ministry began in the fall of AD 28. Since Yahshua was about thirty years of age at the commencement of His ministry and continued His ministry over a period of about 3-1/2 years and if the feast mentioned in John 5:1 is Passover it is virtually certain that His crucifixion occurred on the date of His final Passover in Year AD 32.
We have covered a lot of ground coming to the date of the crucifixion of our Messiah Yahshua, and for one reason, and it is this. Daniel prophesized in Daniel 19:26 that the Messiah would be “cut off” (killed) prior to the destruction of the city and the sanctuary (Temple) that occurred in AD 70 by the Roman General Titus. Note also that Daniel said that, “the people of the prince that shall come” who destroy the city and the Sanctuary would also produce the anti-Christ in the end times, but that is another study, nevertheless those with wisdom will comprehend. The gist of this opening chapter is that The Messiah has come as so literally predicted and whoever is looking for another messiah contradicts G-d’s own word. If you believe the word of G-d and do not believe that Yahshua was the Messiah then you still have to seek the Jewish Messiah before the destruction of the Second Temple.
Selah
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchamah b. David
Question # 24
Dear Rabbi,
I am very confused as to which holidays to celebrate and how to celebrate them. Many of the holidays seem to be of the old covenant and yet the Torah says that the Holydays (the seven feasts) MUST be celebrated though all generations. Did Messiah end these?
Mikaela
Dear Mikaela,
May this e-mail find you blessed.
Answering your question. The Messiah confirmed these Festivals. Believers must be grafted into Israel and being grafted in they become partakers of the Covenants of Israel.
Rom 11:17 And if some of the branches be broken off, and thou, being a wild olive tree, wert grafted in among them, and with them partakest of the root and fatness of the olive tree;
Sha’ul is here speaking of B’nai Israel (the children of Israel-Jew or non-Jew) and if we are to be truly children of Israel, we become betrothed to G-d through the Torah, a ketubah (marriage contract), subject to the conditions of that contract that includes G-d’s instructions regarding His Festivals.
You already have the truth in you for you say the Torah (G-d’s instructions) states that B’nai Yisrael (All the Children of Israel) shall celebrate G-d’s (note that-it is not man’s or even Jewish festivals, but G-d’s) festivals for all their generations. If that premise is true and you are a true believer then you are a recipient and partaker of the covenants of Israel making it incumbent upon you to obey YHVH Elohim.
I am always uncomfortable with the term “old covenant” for it suggests that the “new” has done away with G-d’s Torah or covenant. The word Torah is mistranslated in our English bibles. It should have been translated as “instructions.” This would have a different connotation for us if when misinformed Christians say, “G-d’s Law has been done away with.” Instead of correctly stating, “G-d’s instructions have been done away with.” We all know it would be lubricious to say, “G-d’s instructions have been done away with.” Furthermore, Yahshua was the living manifested Torah and if the Torah is dead so then would be Yahshua for He is the Torah manifested.
Messiah came to show us how to live the Torah and not to do away with it. Much of what Christianity interprets as “doing away with Torah and under a new covenant” is misunderstood by them having misinterpreted Paul (Sha’ul). Peter, said in 2 Pet 3:16 “As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction.” G-d told us He changes not, and Yahshua told us that not one jot or tittle shall be removed from the Torah until there is a new heaven and earth.
I have many articles on the web site related to this subject. In addition, it may benefit you to read, “There is No Covenant for the Gentile Church” also found on the site.
G-d also says we are not to change His Holy days and Christianity by and large has changed the Sabbath from G-d’s Sabbath to man’s Sunday. We have added Easter and Christmas, both pagan holidays and mixed Christian beliefs with pagan beliefs solely to syncretize pagan worship with true worship to make it more palatable to unbelievers. Christians have substituted Passover with the “L-rd’s supper.” Yahshua was celebrating Passover and He said remember me when you partake of Passover and not when you partake of the Eucharist. Most of these replacements were to dejudaize the church and make it a Hellenistic religion more to the liking of the populace.
I have served you more than you have asked, and maybe much of what you already know, but since I so not know the beliefs of those that write I sometimes cover more than is necessary. If you are confused about how to celebrate and when to celebrate G-d’s festivals, associate yourself with a good Messianic Synagogue, one that worships as Yahshua did. Make sure it has a rabbi who is fully conversant with Judaism and not one where the congregation merely wants to have a flavor of Judaism, but essentially is Christianity and non-Torah observant.
In addition, the Festivals are prophetic providing us with G-d’s timetable in mankind’s affairs. Remember, that in the millennium Temple, and during that time we will be celebrating three of G-d’s Festivals while Yahshua rules.
If you respond, I will be out of town for about 10 days. In the meantime please read the articles on the site and they will give you a very good understanding about how G-d’s “instructions-laws,” holy days, covenants, all fit into our time.
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis
Question #25
Dear Rabbi, Blessings.
I have been struggling with health issues; both spiritually and
physically. The L-RD keeps bringing me back to Isaiah Chapter 58 and
then to Psalm 46:10.
After looking at this particular scripture, I was drawn to research the
word "still". It is the Hebrew word Rapha. I saw more to this word
"still" than just being stationary; I saw what being still would bring--health,
Because Adonai is our Healer. I know that Our Abba Father has many insights to
His
Scriptures and I believe He was sharing this one with me. My question is what is
your deeper understanding of this word still in this passage. I am deeply
appreciative of your time and commitment to answering questions. I will be
praying.
Sincerely,
Michael
May YHVH Elohim comfort you and heal you of physical and spiritual struggles. Your attitude as expressed in your e-mail is conducive of G-d’s intervention. Michael, may I say that you are partially correct in your analyses of “rapha” for the root of the word means to be “made whole.” Just being “still” is not adequate for this word “rapha” for it implies like the word “Shema” [hear] means to not only to passively hear, but to “hear, internalize, and to act upon.” Likewise, “rapha” requires action. The question is how? Obviously, YHVH Elohim’s Torah defines for us what being whole means. It is following YHVH’s standards as set forth for us in His Torah (instructions) and to act upon them and apply them to our lives wholly not selecting what we will follow or dismiss.
To have a deeper understanding of this word please read the following: Derivatives of this word are “remedy,” [1. something, as a medicine, that cures or relieves a disease or bodily disorder. 2. something that corrects or removes an evil, error, or undesirable condition 3. to cure or relieve. 4. to restore to the proper condition; put right: to remedy a matter. 5. to counteract or remove: to remedy an evil] Ezekiel 30:21, (G-d will not “heal” Pharaoh and he shall do evil) Jer, 30:13; “healing,” Prov. 3:7-8; and “healing” and “health” Jer. 8:14-15 and Prov. 4:20-22 respectively. In the latter you see that G-d qualifies what will bring about healing.
“Rapha” occurs initially in Gen 20:17 where G-d heals Abimelech because of Abraham’s prayer. The root is also used in human healing as of a physician (Gen. 50:2) “rapa” and is used for the healing and forgiveness of Gentile nations (Isa. 19:22; 57:18) Read these verses also where the word is applied: (1 Samuel 6:3, “then you shall be healed,” (Deuteronomy 28:27), “of which you cannot be healed.”
The themes of healing and restoration as connotations of “rapa” are combined in the usage of Isaiah 53:5, “With his stripes we are healed.” The majority of these citations indicate that it is G-d who causes the healing or afflicts with disease or catastrophes, which cannot be healed, but by divine intervention.
My you find grace in G-d’s Will. I pray that the above will help you to overcome your difficulties.
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchamah b. David)
Question #26
Hello Rabbi Davis,
I am going to a messianic congregation in Tampa, Fl called biet Tahila. I have
found your article concerning God's 7000 yrs redemption plan. Your article is
very interesting to me as I am doing a study of this subject.
I found it interesting that because of Israel unbelief to take the Temple Mount
in 1967, G-d punished them for 40 yrs. Just curious if you still believe the
tribulation will still occur in the year 2007? If so, can you provide me with
some more information as I would like to present this to my congregation.
Shalom in Yeshua,
Jack
Dear Jack,
In reference to your e-mail. You asked if I still believed that the commencement
of the Tribulation would begin in 2007. At this time, I am not adamant as to
that date. The reason is that we have no certainty that a biblical generation is
40 years for in some places in the Scriptures it appears to be 60 or even 80.
Therefore, we have a time length of between 40-80 years. In the article I may
have used 40 as the parameter, but normally use a disclaimer because of the
uncertainty of the length of a generation, depending on when I wrote the
article. Understanding is ever evolving. My personal belief is that the Ezekiel
38 war will signal the beginning of the Tribulation. World events are shaping up
for that scenario to occur, and it could very well occur by 2007. Old time
allies have now become less than friendly, and I refer to Germany, France and
recently, Russia (now an ally). These nations have formed a political block
against the US, and will be part of the confederation of the Ezekiel 38 war as
identified by their ancient biblical names. Israel just a few days ago bombed a
terrorist training camp in Syria, which is also a feature of the Ezekiel 38
scenario. There has been no hostile action with Syria since the Yom Kippur war,
and the Bible tells us that Damascus has to be destroyed and uninhabitable in
the end times. All this seems to be shaping up for such an event. I might add
that Iraq a long time ally with Russia is also a part of that confederation that
descends upon Israel. This seems to be the only anomaly since we are supposed to
be democratizing Iraq. The political climate in this country obviously wants us
to vacate Iraq and if there is a change in leadership this next election, I
foresee that happening, leaving Iraq subject to her biblical future. The Bible
tells us that Russia will descend with her allies Iraq and Iran along with all
or part of the other nations and other named nations upon Israel and be
defeated. This will be the first of three wars mentioned in the Bible for the
end times, and it is my personal belief that this will trigger the Tribulation.
The geopolitical configuration of these nations and our own unsettled political
future infers this is an ideal time for all this to come together and take
place.
Shalom v'brachas,
Rabbi Davis
Question # 27
Why we celebrate Simhat Torah?
What significance of closing eyes when praying "Shema"?
Joseph
Rabbi’s Answer
Dear Joseph,
Simchat Torah means, "Joy of G-d's Torah" or "Rejoicing in Torah" We have just
gone through an austere time of reflection and introspection during the High
Holy Days, examining our lives, repenting and correcting our deficiencies.
Confessing and seeking forgiveness from G-d, and from those that we may have
offended. This week ends the yearly cycle of our weekly Torah Parashat, and
next week we begin the series all over again. We reflect on what we have learned
during the year and anticipate what we shall learn in the coming year through
Torah study. Simchat Torah represents the past, present and future, and the
passing on of G-d's Torah to the next generation. It is a time of praise,
thanksgiving, and joy. As Messianic believers, we celebrate Simchat Torah with
both the Living Torah (Yahshua) and Written Torah (G-d's Instructions) in mind.
Simchat Torah is a relative new celebration in Judaism, and is rabbinical, not
ordained to be celebrated by G-d, yet it's purpose might fall in the same
category as Chanukah, which is also not G-d ordained, but was celebrated by
Yahshua. There is no indication that this festival was celebrated before the
ninth century C.E. However, the symbolic significance of the holiday is
unmistakable. To be immersed in the study of Torah is a joyous thing for a
believer. It is also a tradition that you do not end a Torah cycle on a sad
note, therefore, the joyous occasion of Simchat Torah.
Why some believers cover their eyes during the Sh'ma is to concentrate totally
upon what is said. When the liturgy was evolving after the destruction of the
Temple early rabbis understood that repeated recitation of a prayer or blessing
led many to a fixed and uninvolved ritual, and the heart was not involved in the
process. Therefore, the rabbis taught we practice kavanah. That is direction or
intention or another translation is cleaving to G-d. Covering of the eyes
affords some people the ability to focus and direct their intention to G-d.
Some congregations or rabbis teach this, and others do not. I teach it is an
individual option. The practice has merit as correlated in the B'rit Chadasha
(New Testament) when Yahshua advised us to "go into your closet" when you pray.
Some others cover their heads with their tallit to afford an environment of
intimacy and privacy.
Shalom v'brachas,
Rabbi Davis
Question #28
Dear Rabbi, My
question is: do I have any justification across the Hebrew and the Greek for
tying these two verses together? Thanks, K.A.
I Kings 7:23 says "He made the Sea of cast metal, circular in shape......." speaking of the enormous reservoir used by the priests for ritual cleansing in the temple(II Chron. 4:6).
In Revelation 21:1 "Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth.....and there was no longer any sea."
Dear K.A.
First, let
us look at the words in Hebrew and in Greek:
Hebrew:
3220.
my yam, yawm; from an unused root mean. to roar; a sea (as breaking in
noisy surf) or large body of water; spec. (with the art.) the Mediterranean;
sometimes a large river, or an artificial basin; locally, the west, or (rarely)
the south:--sea (X -faring man, [-shore]), south, west (-ern, side, -ward).
This Laver was called the “bronze sea.” This word is used over 300 times referring to “sea” and over 70 times referring to “west” or “westward,” and once in Ps 107:3 it is translated “from the south.” Isa 49:12 also “opposite to the north.” Scholars refrain from connecting any symbolism with the Temple court Laver, “the bronze sea” and feel it was called such because of its size. Ancient Israel perceived the sea and a place of dread, fraught with dangers. Jonah 2:2 gives us a close relation between Sheol and the seas from which Jonah was delivered. It may well be that the fear of the seas is what gives gives rise to John’s eschatological vision, “the sea shall be no more” (Rev 21:1)
Greek:
2281. thalassa, thal'-as-sah; prob. prol. from G251; the sea (gen. or
spec.):--sea.
The ancients looked on the sea as being restless, unstable, full of danger (Isa. 57:20; James 11:9) Elsewhere the Bible does not always look on the sea as bad (Isa, 11:9)
This Greek word for sea thalassa is a noun and is used to translate the Hebrew word yam and most NT useages of this term or literal references. Most of the references are found in Matthew, Mark, Acts, and Revelation. The term has symbolic overtones, especiall in Revelation where John described a “sea of glass” (Rev 4:6). Cosmologically it is one part of G-d’s created order: heaven, earth and sea (Acts 4:24); and as such it often becomes a realm where G-d displays His mighty power over evil (i.e., calming the storm, Matthew 8:23-27); walking on water, (Matthew 14:22, 23, etc.)
Again you wrote: Revelation refers to the absence of a temple in the new Jerusalem and I've wondered if that meant that the Sea connected with the OT temple was the one which was meant in vs. 1. Some ex-surfers in my class are curious as well.
Thank you again in advance for your consideration.
Commentary:
Habakkuk 2:14) The oceans are necessary for the replacing of oxygen in the
atmosphere of the present earth (through multitudes of microscopic plant forms
in the seas). The lack of the seas suggests that the whole economy of the new
earth will be different.
Now from two Jewish perspectives. Judaism considers the sea as a metaphor in two respects. One is that of the comparison of “water” to Torah. The sages say, “there is no water except Torah.” Just as water quenches bodily thirst, so do the waters of Torah quence spiritual thirst.” In relation to Torah in general, the “open saying” corresponds to the revealed dimension of Torah while the “closed sayings” corresponds to the hidden dimension, the secrets of Torah. These two sayings further correspond to the higher and lower waters. The two letters that correspond to the higher waters, the higher “yud” and the final “mem” , "the sea” or “concealed world,” the hidden dimension the glory of G-d is to conceal things.” The two letters which correspond to the “lower waters, the lower “mem” and “yud”, but reversed, spell “who?” the secret of “the glory of kings is to investigate things”- the revealed dimension of Torah. If we extrapolate this into the NT we might derive that the “sea” as a metaphor of the Torah Revealed in all its dimensions reveals what the Bible states that “in that day” we will all know Torah.
The other perspective is what I have earlier alluded to and that is the Israelites viewed the “sea” as threatening and dangerous and as a metaphor for “sin”.
Therefore, since there will be no “sea” in the New Jerusalem I think that the citation in Revelation understood from a Jewish point of view refers to the absence of sin and a perfect understanding of G-d’s Torah and would be stretching it to interpret it as you state.
Jer 31:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
.Jer 31:34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
Read below:
The judgment of chapter 20 is one side of a coin; this is the other. The sinless conditions of the Garden of Eden are restored (see last paragraph of 20:11–15). It is the time when “the creation,” which “has been groaning as with the pains of childbirth,” will be “set free from its bondage to decay” to “enjoy the freedom accompanying the glory that G-d’s children will have” (Ro 8:19–23). It is the restoration spoken of in Ac 3:21, in which Yahshua “has to remain in heaven until the time comes for restoring everything, as G-d said long ago, when he spoke through the holy prophets.” It is the fulfillment of Isaiah’s prophecy:
“Behold, I create new heavens
and a new earth; the former things will not be remembered or come to mind.
“Rather, you will be glad, you will rejoice forever over what I create, for, behold, I create Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy; “and I will rejoice in Jerusalem and take joy in my people—no longer shall there be heard in her the sound of weeping or crying.”(Isaiah 65:17–19)
The interconnection between the new creation and judgment is even clearer in the words of Isaiah 66:22–24: “For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, are to remain before me, says Adonai, so will your seed and your name remain. And it will come to pass that every new moon and every Shabbat all flesh will come to worship before me, says Adonai. And they will go out and look at the carcasses of the people who rebelled against me, for their worm will not die, and their fire will not be quenched, and all flesh will regard them with disgrace.”
Specifically, No longer any sea. The Bible depicts creation as war. Light conquers darkness (Genesis 1:1–5, John 1:1–5), but the sea is allied with the darkness. It has to be contained, limited—this is done on the second day of creation (Genesis 1:6–10; see also Job 38:8–11, Isaiah 27:1, and possibly Isaiah 51:9–52:12). The sea is active in bringing destruction and death through the flood of Noach, an event mentioned five times in the New Testament (Mt 24:37–38, Lk 17:26–27, Hebrews11:7, 1 Peter 3:20, 2 Peter 2:5). But the sea is under G-d’s control, as seen most clearly in the Exodus, where G-d’s “strong hand and outstretched arm” turn the Red Sea into a means of salvation for the Israelites, though a means of destruction for the Egyptians. G-d has promised never again to use water as a means of universal destruction (Genesis 9:11), but equally he has promised that he will use fire for that purpose (2 Peter 3:10–12). The Lake of Fire (20:15) is a fiery sea of eternal destruction; it conquers finally and universally what the Red Sea conquered temporally and locally—namely, sin. Water is powerful, but fire is more powerful; hence Yochanan the Immerser, says he immerses in water but another is coming, Yahshua, who will immerse in the Ruach HaKodesh (Holy Spirit) and in fire (Lk 3:16–17).
Shalom v’ Brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchama ben David)
Question #29
Dear Rabbi, My question is: do I have any justification across the Hebrew and the Greek for tying these two verses together? Thanks, K.A.
I Kings 7:23 says "He made the Sea of cast metal, circular in shape......." speaking of the enormous reservoir used by the priests for ritual cleansing in the temple(II Chron. 4:6).
In Revelation 21:1 "Then I saw a new heaven and a new earth.....and there was no longer any sea."
Dear K.A.
First, let
us look at the words in Hebrew and in Greek:
Hebrew:
3220.
my yam, yawm; from an unused root mean. to roar; a sea (as breaking in
noisy surf) or large body of water; spec. (with the art.) the Mediterranean;
sometimes a large river, or an artificial basin; locally, the west, or (rarely)
the south:--sea (X -faring man, [-shore]), south, west (-ern, side, -ward).
This Laver was called the “bronze sea.” This word is used over 300 times referring to “sea” and over 70 times referring to “west” or “westward,” and once in Ps 107:3 it is translated “from the south.” Isa 49:12 also “opposite to the north.” Scholars refrain from connecting any symbolism with the Temple court Laver, “the bronze sea” and feel it was called such because of its size. Ancient Israel perceived the sea and a place of dread, fraught with dangers. Jonah 2:2 gives us a close relation between Sheol and the seas from which Jonah was delivered. It may well be that the fear of the seas is what gives gives rise to John’s eschatological vision, “the sea shall be no more” (Rev 21:1)
Greek:
2281. thalassa, thal'-as-sah; prob. prol. from G251; the sea (gen. or
spec.):--sea.
The ancients looked on the sea as being restless, unstable, full of danger (Isa. 57:20; James 11:9) Elsewhere the Bible does not always look on the sea as bad (Isa, 11:9)
This Greek word for sea thalassa is a noun and is used to translate the Hebrew word yam and most NT useages of this term or literal references. Most of the references are found in Matthew, Mark, Acts, and Revelation. The term has symbolic overtones, especiall in Revelation where John described a “sea of glass” (Rev 4:6). Cosmologically it is one part of G-d’s created order: heaven, earth and sea (Acts 4:24); and as such it often becomes a realm where G-d displays His mighty power over evil (i.e., calming the storm, Matthew 8:23-27); walking on water, (Matthew 14:22, 23, etc.)
Again you wrote: Revelation refers to the absence of a temple in the new Jerusalem and I've wondered if that meant that the Sea connected with the OT temple was the one which was meant in vs. 1. Some ex-surfers in my class are curious as well.
Thank you again in advance for your consideration.
Commentary:
Habakkuk 2:14) The oceans are necessary for the replacing of oxygen in the
atmosphere of the present earth (through multitudes of microscopic plant forms
in the seas). The lack of the seas suggests that the whole economy of the new
earth will be different.
Now from two Jewish perspectives. Judaism considers the sea as a metaphor in two respects. One is that of the comparison of “water” to Torah. The sages say, “there is no water except Torah.” Just as water quenches bodily thirst, so do the waters of Torah quence spiritual thirst.” In relation to Torah in general, the “open saying” corresponds to the revealed dimension of Torah while the “closed sayings” corresponds to the hidden dimension, the secrets of Torah. These two sayings further correspond to the higher and lower waters. The two letters that correspond to the higher waters, the higher “yud” and the final “mem” , "the sea” or “concealed world,” the hidden dimension the glory of G-d is to conceal things.” The two letters which correspond to the “lower waters, the lower “mem” and “yud”, but reversed, spell “who?” the secret of “the glory of kings is to investigate things”- the revealed dimension of Torah. If we extrapolate this into the NT we might derive that the “sea” as a metaphor of the Torah Revealed in all its dimensions reveals what the Bible states that “in that day” we will all know Torah.
The other perspective is what I have earlier alluded to and that is the Israelites viewed the “sea” as threatening and dangerous and as a metaphor for “sin”.
Therefore, since there will be no “sea” in the New Jerusalem I think that the citation in Revelation understood from a Jewish point of view refers to the absence of sin and a perfect understanding of G-d’s Torah and would be stretching it to interpret it as you state.
Jer 31:33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the LORD, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
.Jer 31:34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the LORD: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the LORD: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
Read below:
The judgment of chapter 20 is one side of a coin; this is the other. The sinless conditions of the Garden of Eden are restored (see last paragraph of 20:11–15). It is the time when “the creation,” which “has been groaning as with the pains of childbirth,” will be “set free from its bondage to decay” to “enjoy the freedom accompanying the glory that G-d’s children will have” (Ro 8:19–23). It is the restoration spoken of in Ac 3:21, in which Yahshua “has to remain in heaven until the time comes for restoring everything, as G-d said long ago, when he spoke through the holy prophets.” It is the fulfillment of Isaiah’s prophecy:
“Behold, I create new heavens
and a new earth; the former things will not be remembered or come to mind.
“Rather, you will be glad, you will rejoice forever over what I create, for, behold, I create Jerusalem a rejoicing, and her people a joy; “and I will rejoice in Jerusalem and take joy in my people—no longer shall there be heard in her the sound of weeping or crying.”(Isaiah 65:17–19)
The interconnection between the new creation and judgment is even clearer in the words of Isaiah 66:22–24: “For as the new heavens and the new earth, which I will make, are to remain before me, says Adonai, so will your seed and your name remain. And it will come to pass that every new moon and every Shabbat all flesh will come to worship before me, says Adonai. And they will go out and look at the carcasses of the people who rebelled against me, for their worm will not die, and their fire will not be quenched, and all flesh will regard them with disgrace.”
Specifically, No longer any sea. The Bible depicts creation as war. Light conquers darkness (Genesis 1:1–5, John 1:1–5), but the sea is allied with the darkness. It has to be contained, limited—this is done on the second day of creation (Genesis 1:6–10; see also Job 38:8–11, Isaiah 27:1, and possibly Isaiah 51:9–52:12). The sea is active in bringing destruction and death through the flood of Noach, an event mentioned five times in the New Testament (Mt 24:37–38, Lk 17:26–27, Hebrews11:7, 1 Peter 3:20, 2 Peter 2:5). But the sea is under G-d’s control, as seen most clearly in the Exodus, where G-d’s “strong hand and outstretched arm” turn the Red Sea into a means of salvation for the Israelites, though a means of destruction for the Egyptians. G-d has promised never again to use water as a means of universal destruction (Genesis 9:11), but equally he has promised that he will use fire for that purpose (2 Peter 3:10–12). The Lake of Fire (20:15) is a fiery sea of eternal destruction; it conquers finally and universally what the Red Sea conquered temporally and locally—namely, sin. Water is powerful, but fire is more powerful; hence Yochanan the Immerser, says he immerses in water but another is coming, Yahshua, who will immerse in the Ruach HaKodesh (Holy Spirit) and in fire (Lk 3:16–17).
Shalom v’ Brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchama ben David)
Question #30
For some time I have been looking for Jewish SOURCES to document the role of the HIGH PRIEST during Passover.
I have read or heard several people state the following without evidence.
Your web page “YHVH's Festivals” does not mention all of the above. It does however refer to Josephus regarding the 3:00 p.m. sacrifice.
It also refers to Exodus 12:3,6 for the selection of a lamb on the 10th and being kept for four days. During these 4 days where was the High Priest’s lamb?
I tried to find this information in the Mishnah.
I have talked to a few Hebrew scholars who were unaware of any sources.
I would love to know which of the above statements about the High Priest’s role are wishful thinking and which can be documented.
Thanks
M. S.
A special degree of holiness was required of the high priest (Lev. 10:6,9; 21:10-15). During his term, he could not leave the sanctuary precincts for it was forbidden. [1}This would argue against the hypothesis that he acquired a lamb in Bethlehem, brought it through the north gate or was out of the precincts of the Temple proper on an ass, or that a hallel was song as he entered the gate for his duty required he be in the Temple during the entire length of his course of duty. The obligation of the priests were entirely burnt offerings (Lev 6:16). The Paschal lamb was slaughtered and the meat was returned to the offerer. A lamb could be offered for an entire family or for friends who had agreed to offer it collectively. Each Paschal lamb was to serve for a “company” of not less then 10 or more than 20 persons.During Passover the High Priest officiated but did not offer sacrifices, this was left to the ordinary priests. Such legislation identified the high priest as one totally dedicated to the Lord, always ritually pure and ready to serve the Lord. His specific duty was to enter the Holy of Holies 4 times on Yom Kippur.
The Paschal sacrifice was conducted this way: a Jew would bring the offering to the Temple and give it to a Priest who would slaughter it, sprinkle its blood upon the altar, and burn it entrails and fat. The remainder would be returned to the person who donated the lamb. The animal was then returned to the person who had donated the lamb, which was returned to the family who would eat it along with “matzah and bitter herbs and they would discuss the Exodus from Egypt. Some sacrifices but not this one was divided between the priests and offerer. Typically, the offerer would follow the crowd up to the Temple mount . Here they were grouped into three divisions. The lambs were slaughtered at 1:30 PM and offered at about 3:00 PM .The sacrifices were hung on hooks and/or laid on staves that rested on the shoulders of two men. On Shabbat they were not laid on men’s shoulders. They were then flayed, entrails taken out and cleansed and the inside fat separated, put in a dish, salted and placed on the fire of the altar of burnt offering. This completed the sacrifice. After the sacrifice the offerer came down from the Temple-mount bearing on his shoulder the lamb.
There were 18,000 temple personnel on hand during each of the three great pilgrim festivals: Passover, Shavuot and Succot. On feast days all 24 courses were required to come to Jerusalem Directly beneath the High Priest in rank were the chief priests an exclusive group of about 200 highborn Jews. The most important of them was the captain of the temple, second only in rank and power to the high priest. His duties included supervision of the whole body of priests and of all temple activities. Other chief priests had charge of the daily and weekly temple services, the temple treasury and the maintenance of the sacred vessels. Below the chief priests were the ordinary priests of the temple. There were probably about 7,200 of them in Yahshua’s time.
If the high priest sinned, he brought guilt upon the whole people (Lev. 4:3). The sin offering for the high priest (Lev. 4:3-12) was identical to that required "if the whole congregation of Israel commits a sin" (4:13-21).
[2] Of the 613 commandments about 150 relate to the Temple Priest hood and sacrifices. To answer your questions for #2 cunsult those commandments. There is no mention of a lamb being put on display. I have consulted all resources, Talmud, Mishnah, etc., and find no mention of anything to support the hypothesis advanced here.
[3] Slaughtered at about 1:30 PM and not 9:00 PM. Maimonides, Edersheim, and other extra biblical sources
[4] Same as above. High Priest did not personally sacrifice an offering, therefore sub points two and three invalid. See point [1] and most any authorities, Talmud, Mishnah, etc.
[5] Not valid as slaughtered lamb given back to donor to take home for Pesach meal.
Sorry, it took so long to get back to you but I wanted to research this well for I had never seen anything in my many years alluding to what you wrote. I consulted all the Jewish sources in my library and could find nothing relating to what you outlined. If you happen to come across the source of your information, I would like to see it.
The Passover is loaded with types of Yahshua’s sacrifice, but sorry none of the ones you mentioned seems to be verified.
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchama b. David)
Question #31
Rabbi:
Can you please give me clarification on this scripture: John 8:58. It
is my opinion that in this scripture, Christ is claiming to be the "I AM",
one of the old testament references to God - THE God of Abraham, Isaac and
Jacob. In your scholarly opinion, is Jesus claiming to be "God" in this
scripture?
Thank You
Kimberly
Rabbi's Answer
Yes, He is, and you are correct in your interpretation. Read below and go on the web site and read my treatise on the “Trinity.” The question has its complexities and requires understanding the “Compound Unity of G-d” as opposed to the Doctrine of the Trinity, which is misleading and often fosters misunderstanding. Yahshua is G-d, but in the “person” of Yahshua He is assuming a different role, i.e. G-d Himself provided the only suitable substitute for the forgiveness of past sins and reconciliation (Romans 3:25), in Himself. G-d prepared a physical body to inhabit in the person of Yahshua (G-d Transcendent to G-d Immanent) and placed His Spirit fully therein, and brought about the plan of salvation. Let me start with the verse below:
John 8:28 So Yahshua said, “When you lift up the Son of Man, then you will know that I am who I say I am, and that of myself I do nothing, but say only what the Father has taught me. (Jewish NT)
John 8:58 Yahshua said to them, “Yes, indeed! Before Avraham came into being, I AM!” (Jewish NT)
This is Yahshua’s clearest declaration of His divinity. The term “I AM” echoes G-d’s revelation of Himself, “I am who I am” (Exodus 3:14) Yahshua says “I am” nine times in Yochanan’s (John’s) gospel (6:20; 8:24; 28. 58, 13:9; 18:5; 6, 8) implying a claim even greater then being the Messiah as expected and anointed human without divine properties. Also see Mark 14:61-62 where Yahshua is asked: “Are you the Mashiach, Ben-HaM’vorakh (The Messiah, the Son of the Blessed One,” i.e. the Son of G-d? He answered “I AM.” G-d’s revealed name of Himself, YHVH. Some scholars assert that Yahshua never claimed to be the Messiah in the Synoptic Gospels. This assertion denies the plain sense of the verses. Here in direct response to the Cohen Gadol, the High Priest, Yahshua does not hesitate to respond, and furthermore, He uses the word Adonai that was used to identify Himself to Moshe at the burning bush, when He said, “I AM who I AM” Ehyeh asher ehyeh (Exodus 3:14). Yahshua not only affirms that He is the Messiah, the Son of G-d, but hints that He is Adonai Himself. In Matthew 26:64 Yahshua’s answer to the Cohen Gadol is straightforward and in the literal Greek it is “You have said,” meaning in vernacular English “You said it!” a straight forward affirmation. You might also recall that G-d calls Himself the “Rock of your salvation” in the OT and Yahshua is identified by the same appellation in the NT. In Zechariah 14 in Hebrew it reads that YHVH will come to the Mount of Olives (unfortunately you can only see this in the Hebrew text~ consult a Hebrew Bible) In Zechariah 14:1-14: 4 the Hebrew Scriptures identifies who shall come in the end of days and it is YHVH. Christian Scholars by and large identify the foregoing scripture as prophetic of Yahshua returning to Jerusalem and if the Hebrew Scriptures identify the One who comes as YHVH then we see the correlation between YHVH/Yahshua clearly. NOTE that “LORD” in the English is translated from YHVH in the Hebrew Scriptures. Then in the NT, in Acts (see below) it states Yahshua will come to the Mount of Olives as in Zechariah, another clear identification of Yahshua being YHVH.
Zec 14:1Behold, the day of the LORD cometh, and thy spoil shall be divided in the midst of thee. 2For I will gather all nations against Jerusalem to battle; and the city shall be taken, and the houses rifled, and the women ravished; and half of the city shall go forth into captivity, and the residue of the people shall not be cut off from the city. 3Then shall the LORD go forth, and fight against those nations, as when he fought in the day of battle.
Zec 14:4 And his feet shall stand in that day upon the mount of Olives, which is before Jerusalem on the east, and the mount of Olives shall cleave in the midst thereof toward the east and toward the west, and there shall be a very great valley; and half of the mountain shall remove toward the north, and half of it toward the south.
Acts 1:9 And when he had spoken these things, while they beheld, he was taken up; and a cloud received him out of their sight.
Acts 1:10 And while they looked stedfastly toward heaven as he went up, behold, two men stood by them in white apparel;
Acts 1:11 Which also said, Ye men of Galilee, why stand ye gazing up into heaven? this same Jesus, which is taken up from you into heaven, shall so come in like manner as ye have seen him go into heaven. (KJV)
See also Joel chapter 3.
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Phil Davis (R. Milchamah b. David)
Question #32
Can you help me with a question. I have heard it said that when the Cohen Gadol would enter the Most Holy Place that a fleece was dipped in blood and hung outside of the temple. It was for the people to see if YHVH had accepted the sacrifice and offering, and if He had He would turn the fleece white again. Can you let me know is this in the Torah or was it part of manners and customs from the Rabbinical teachings?
Shalom
Wayne
Rabbi's Answer
In the Jerusalem Talmud (The Yerushalmi, p. 156-157) the following is found. “Forty years before the destruction of the Temple, the western light went out, the crimson thread remained crimson, and the lot for the L-rd always came up in the left hand, They would close the Temple gates by night and get up in the morning and find them wide open.” A similar passage in the Babylonian Talmud states: “Our rabbis taught: During the last forty years before the destruction of the Temple the lot {For the L-r] did not come up in the right hand; nor the crimson-colored strap become white; nor did the western light shine; and the doors of the Hekel (Temple) would not open themselves” (Soncino version Talmud, Yoma 39b) The temple was destroyed in 70 CE.
First, let me explain what these passages are talking about. The first of these miracles concerns a random choosing of the “lot” which was cast on the Day of Atonement (Yom Kippur). The lot chosen determined which of the two goats would be “for the L-rd” and which goat would be the “Azazel” or “Scapegoat.” During the two hundred years before 30 CE, when the High Priest picked one of two stones, again this selection was governed by chance, and each year the priest would select the black stone as often as the white stone. But for forty years in a row, beginning in 30 CE, the High Priest always picked the black stone. The odds against this happening are astronomical (2 to the 40th power). In other words, the chance of this occurring are 1 in approximately 5, 479, 584, 800 or about 5.5 billion to one. This was considered a dire event and signified something fundamentally changed in the Yom Kippur ritual. Next the miracle of the red or crimson thread. The crimson strip or cloth was tied to the Azazel goat. A portion of this red cloth was removed from the goat and was tied to the Temple door. Each year the red cloth on the Temple door turned white as if to signify the animal sacrifices of another Yom Kippur was acceptable to the L-rd. The annual event happened until 30 CE when the cloth remained crimson each year until the time of the Temple’s destruction. The traditional practice is linked to Israel confessing its sins and ceremonially placing the nation’s sins upon the Azazel goat. The third miracle was the Temple doors. The Temple doors according to Jewish authorities swung open every night on their own accord. This too occurred for forty years, beginning in 30 CE. The leading Jewish authority of that time, Yochanan ben Zakkai, declared that this was a sign of impending doom. That the Temple would be destroyed. From a believer’s perspective, the doors might have opened to signify that all may now enter into the Temple even into its innermost sanctuary through our trust in Yahshua’s faithfulness. There is also the miracle of the Temple Menorah. The seven-bowl Menorah (Western Lamp) went out and would not shine. Every night for forty years, this main lamp of the Temple went out on its own accord even in the face of all attempts to keep it burning. All of these phenomena are reported in the Talmud and there is no natural way to explain them. The only possible way is supernatural. These events can only point to the great event of our Messiah’s work, His crucifixion and YHVH’s permanent provision for us of a sacrifice, His son, for our reconciliation to Him.
Question #33
My question refers to the Mosaic Law. What is adultery when it relates to men? I was recently told that a man having relations with a married woman is adultery but a married man having relations with a unmarried woman is referred to as fornication not adultery. This person explained that the correct term was based on the marital status of the woman not the man. He further explained that this had something to do with maintaining the Hebrew blood line. Please clarify. I really appreciate your help.
Lance
Rabbi's Answer
Dear Lance,
In the KJV adultery and fornication are listed many times and an understanding of the words may be had by consulting your Strong’s concordance.
In Webster’s English dictionary, this is the definition of the English word fornication n. 1. voluntary sexual intercourse between two unmarried persons or two persons not married to each other. 2. (in the Bible)a. adultery.b. idolatry. fornicatory adj
For Adultery it is: adultery n., pl. teries. voluntary sexual intercourse between a married person and someone other than his or her lawful spouse.
This is what informs most understanding of the Hebrew English Bible. Hebrew is a block, concept language, and it’s understanding has to be had from that perspective. For instance, the commandment “You shall not commit adultery” includes the lusting after a woman as a violation of this commandment. Or “You shall not commit murder,” also includes not gossiping even if true (Lashon hara) about anyone as this is akin to murder. The old rabbis understood this to be the case and taught about these concepts even before the Advent of Yahshua (Jesus).
In the Bible, fornication and adultery are not so distinct as understood in English. You can see from the listed items below. Adultery always includes fornication. In other words the act of sex union has to be present to be Adultery. Judiciously different penalties are exacted when certain elements are present as to the marital status of either party involved. Only when both people are unmarried is it seen as truly fornication in the English understanding. There are laws in the Torah regarding these situations of sexual union between a man and woman who are married and unmarried, both married and unmarried, and both married. Also note, In Judaism, having sex with a woman also constitutes a marriage. Betrothal has legal obligations, but marriage constitutes consummation of the sex act. One of the legal obligations of a betrothal is chastity. In some instances, singled out in the Torah such as in the case of one of the persons being married, the death penalty is still enacted upon both if the sexual union was voluntary. In the case of rape, if the rape takes place in the fields, there are penalties for both the married and the unmarried if the act is discovered, the man must take the woman as his wife and cannot divorce her. See below.
Deu 22:25 But if a man find a betrothed damsel in the field, and the man force her, and lie with her: then the man only that lay with her shall die:
Deu 22:26 But unto the damsel thou shalt do nothing; there is in the damsel no sin worthy of death: for as when a man riseth against his neighbour, and slayeth him, even so is this matter:
Deu 22:27 For he found her in the field, and the betrothed damsel cried, and there was none to save her.
Deu 22:28 If a man find a damsel that is a virgin, which is not betrothed, and lay hold on her, and lie with her, and they be found;
Deu 22:29 Then the man that lay with her shall give unto the damsel's father fifty shekels of silver, and she shall be his wife; because he hath humbled her, he may not put her away all his days.
In this book it also clearly says: Deu 22:22 If a man be found lying with a woman married to an husband, then they shall both of them die, both the man that lay with the woman, and the woman: so shalt thou put away evil from Israel.
What if the man is married and the woman is not? Then the woman must be a virgin, or a prostitute would apply, in any case not married, for as you can see in the earlier entry above he must marry her and make compensation or if the details are such and it is a rape (forced) and she could not summon help the death penalty is enacted. All depends on the circumstances. It is not so clear cut as your friend states that a married man having sex with an unmarried woman is fornication for judiciously in this case it exacts the penalty of death which is adultery. In the English bible there is no specification of death for fornication but, the Scriptures teach otherwise which tells us something about the inadequacy of translation.
Deu 22:23 If a damsel that is a virgin be betrothed unto an husband, and a man find her in the city, and lie with her;
Deu 22:24 Then ye shall bring them both out unto the gate of that city, and ye shall stone them with stones that they die; the damsel, because she cried not, being in the city; and the man, because he hath humbled his neighbour's wife: so thou shalt put away evil from among you.
Here is another set of circumstances to peruse. If she had cried out she would have been spared, and he would have been executed, if not both are executed.
There is little distinction between the two words in the Scripture. For instance in Matthew Yahshua states, the only cause for divorce is “fornication.” This word used here is the same as adultery, but He is speaking of spiritual adultery. Had He been speaking of adultery as the Mosaic Law addresses it would have called for stoning to death the perpetrators, so He could not have been speaking of physical adultery for the wife or husband and partner either betrothed or married would have been executed, because they were guilty of physical adultery. If they were guilty of “fornication” as the English conveys then what crime are they guilty of, and for which there is a penalty. I believe I have a sermon on the web on this subject.
Not all your friend told you is completely correct in my estimation. I have heard this same definition made by many. I will start right off by saying there is no credibility to the statement that such a “law” was given to maintaining a Hebrew bloodline. The only Jewish law that I can recall that would remotely relate to an issue from an illegitimate union is the one that relates to Jewish women being raped by foreign conquerors of which there were many. A baby from such a union was considered Jewish under Jewish law. That is why the Jewish bloodline today, is traced from the matrilineal descent.
Adultery is likened to spiritual apostasy. A marriage is likened to our relationship to G-d in that it is a picture of a faithful relationship to G-d as our earthly marriages should be faithful relationships with one spouse. Adultery carries with it legal ramifications and there is a temporal and spiritual penalty exacted for breaking this union. We are to have both a stable earthly marriage, and a spiritual marriage with G-d without courting or committing “fornication” (the act of sexual union) by engaging in extra-marital relationships or in false worship.
If you look up “adultery” in any Hebrew dictionary you will see that ‘fornication and adultery” are used interchangeably.
Like a good rabbi I will leave you with a question. First, adultery is deception. So, if a man or woman allows or gives their mate permission to have intimate sex with someone outside of the marriage union, for whatever reason, health, disability, etc., does that constitute adultery, or would that be ‘fornication” (sexual union). From a halakic (rabbinical legal decisions) it would not be adultery because it was permissive, and therefore not liable to civil or criminal penalty if the other party in the equation was not married.
Therefore, any sexual act outside the parameters of G-d’s Torah (either fornication or adultery in the broad sense) is considered illegal and liable for penalties.
Your subject entails much more than is own the surface. Good question! I enjoyed it and hope this helps or most likely it just draws up more questions. That’s the beauty of Scripture. There is always more depth than we find on the surface.
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchamah b. David
Exo 20:14 Thou shalt not commit adultery.
:
5003. na'aph, naw-af'; a prim. root; to commit adultery; fig. to apostatize:--adulterer (-ess), commit (-ing) adultery, woman that breaketh wedlock.
Lev 20:10 And the man that committeth adultery with another man's wife, even he that committeth adultery with his neighbour's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress shall surely be put to death.
(2 Chr 21:11 KJV) Moreover he made high places in the mountains of Judah, and caused the inhabitants of Jerusalem to commit fornication, and compelled Judah thereto.
Here it is likened to Adultery with little distinction between the two words.
2181. zanah, zaw-naw'; a prim. root [highly fed and therefore wanton]; to commit adultery (usually of the female, and less often of simple fornication, rarely of involuntary ravishment); fig. to commit idolatry (the Jewish people being regarded as the spouse of Jehovah):--(cause to) commit fornication,
2 Chr 21:11: See Jud 3:7 and 1 Ki 3:2, notes
Lev 20:5
(Isa 23:17 KJV) And it shall come to pass after the end of seventy years, that the LORD will visit Tyre, and she shall turn to her hire, and shall commit fornication with all the kingdoms of the world upon the face of the earth.
(Ezek 16:26 KJV) Thou hast also committed fornication with the Egyptians thy neighbours, great of flesh; and hast increased thy whoredoms, to provoke me to anger.
Ezek 16:26:
Ezek 20:7 - 8
(Ezek 16:29 KJV) Thou hast moreover multiplied thy fornication in the land of Canaan unto Chaldea; and yet thou wast not satisfied herewith.
Ezek 16:29:
(Mat 5:32 KJV) But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication, causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.
FORNICATION 4202. porneia, por-ni'-ah; from G4203; harlotry (includ. adultery and incest); fig. idolatry:--fornication.
ADULTERY3429. moichao, moy-khah'-o; from G3432; (mid.) to commit adultery:--commit adultery.
Mat 5:32: Luke 16:18; cp. 1 Cor 7:12
(Mat 19:9 KJV) And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.
(John 8:41 KJV) Ye do the deeds of your father. Then said they to him, We be not born of fornication; we have one Father, even God.
(Acts 15:20 KJV) But that we write unto them, that they abstain from pollutions of idols, and from fornication, and from things strangled, and from blood.
(Rom 1:29 KJV) Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
4202. porneia, por-ni'-ah; from G4203; harlotry (includ. adultery and incest); fig. idolatry:--fornication.
4203. porneuo, porn-yoo'-o; from G4204; to act the harlot, i.e. (lit.) indulge unlawful lust (of either sex), or (fig.) practise idolatry:--commit (fornication).
Question #34
Hi, when Miriam gave birth to Y'shua, was it a virgin birth? Some Rabbinical Jewish people have been saying the Hebrew word almah is referred to 'young women' and not virgin, is this true? And they are saying that Y'shua didn't fulfill all the requirements, but wouldn't they be fulfilled in the 2nd coming? And the Bible says that Y'shua has to be of direct linage to King David, but God is his father, could God have made Y'shua a direct linage to King David?
-Ashley
Rabbi's Answer
Dear Ashley:
1) Yes, it was a virgin birth. 2) It is true that “almah” refers to a “young maiden,” and that there is another Hebrew word that denotes a virgin, however the terms are interchangeable, and “almah” may refer to a virginal young woman. It is only when arguing from an agenda that emphasis is put upon one or the other. 3) Yahshua did not fulfill all the requirements from the Jewish perspective, essentially that the Mashiach would restore Israel to prominence and head of nations, and you are correct to interpret the completion of fulfillment in Jewish expectations and prophecy at Yahshua’s second event. This more closely patterns the Jewish thought of Messiah ben Yosef and Messiah ben David that erroneously supposes TWO messiahs. 4) Yahshua was of the lineage of David and of Aaron (the Priestly line) on His mother’s Mariam’s side. As to the virgin birth and some people’s assertion that it does not matter, it, the virgin birth had to be a necessary reality because of the doctrine of original sin (Traditional Jews do not believe in nor teach original sin but this is not biblical as many learned Jewish scholars will tell you). Adam sinned and his blood became tainted as the scriptures teach. In Adam all mankind sins. It is a medical fact that blood is transmitted by the man’s sperm and that the woman nurtures the fetus, but does not transmit blood via her eggs. Torah teaches that the life is in the blood. Adam, the father of all mankind was created without sin, and after the fall transmitted sin through his blood to all of mankind’s prodigy. Therefore, for Yahshua to enter into physical earthly life and be on par with Adam in his original state, that is without sin, He had to be born without the taint of sin that permeates humanity after Adam’s fall and this is the compelling reason for the virgin birth. Even if Yahshua had led a perfect Torah observant life He would have been infested with original sin if He had had an earthly father. Sin is passed along to mankind by virtue of the male and not the female. Eve was deceived but Adam sinned and as the corporate head of humankind he passed along sin to all mankind. Another reason is that within Joseph’s lineage from David, he counts Coniah (Jeochoim) as an ancestor, and G-d said no descendent of this evil King would ever sit on the throne of Israel. Two reasons that would disqualify Yahshua as King of Israel. From Miriam He not only enjoys the priestly line but the Davidic line without the handicap of Coniah (Jeochoim-Hope the spelling is right) that would disqualify Him from Kingship. As to the priesthood Yahshua is after the order of Melchisedec a Kong – Priest of Salem (Jerusalem to whom Abraham paid tithes and this from the Jewish perspective means that Melchisedec is greater then the Levitical priest hood since they were still in the “loin’s of Abraham.” In the Jewish sense that means they too paid tithes to Melchisedec showing Melchisedec’s superiority. YHVH Elohim makes no mistakes. Unfortunately, most Christians and unlearned Messianic Jews do not know this and can’t properly counter arguments to the contrary. That is why Christians need to know their Jewish roots to properly understand their religion and become proper apologists when confronted about doctrines.
Shalom v’brachas,
Rabbi Davis (R. Milchamah b. David)